Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

I'm a 27 year old male currently but I am going through going through gender dysphoria. Why do some transgender people (specifically transgender women since I see that the most) call themselves trannies or shemales? Aren't those offensive words?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What would happen if the US government told the British government in no uncertain terms all RAF bases with USAF personnel now must follow the Constitution and us law, and if the UK tried to defy this, the US military would directly attack the UK?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Who are the actual "science deniers": people who wait until vaccines are proven effective, or people who believe that there are more than two genders?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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